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Old 02-10-2005, 06:48 AM   #1 (permalink)
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First of all, let me tell you that if you don't master this rule, don't worry cos many Turkish folks are like you!
Still, I wanted to inform you of this rule cos it's gonna make u life easier when you're looking up for a word in the dictionary.
For instance, if your Turkish lover writes you "meleğim" (= my angel), don't spend your time looking for “meleğ” in the dic! “angel” means “melek”, but if a vowel comes after the k, this letter turns to a ğ.

the rule is simple:
p, ç, t, k become respectively b, c, d, ğ as soon as they're fllowed by a vowel. (due to your adding an ending)
This rule works mainly with 2 syllable words. (eg : et becomes eti, so no change).


Examples:
Dolap (cupboard) = dolabı
Dalgıç (diver) = dalgıcı

But there are also exceptions, as in every rule...
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Old 02-10-2005, 07:30 AM   #2 (permalink)
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I have questions please :
1. I am glad to know about the word malak, because it sounds familiar to me! That's from Arabic!
My question is: The word is spelt such as melek, is it prunounced such as malak?

2. I understand that rule you just explained!
That will be respected while I want to express possesion with words that don't end with a vowel...so I will add "im" (right?? I didn't have a deep look on that lesson yet, with words not ending with vowels ), and I will change the letter as indicated, that's just clear!

BUT...For the example of yours, you added "i" to the words, was it just to explain how words change? Or does the "i" in the end have a meaning?
Is it to make words defined?? Like la and le in French?

Sorry for bothering...But I can't help it, I need to understand in order to learn
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Old 02-10-2005, 10:16 AM   #3 (permalink)
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1st: would u prefer me to speak to u in French or English?

2/ melek is pronounced like this: "mèlèk" . or as in set, red, etc in english.

3/im /ım/um/üm are the possessive endings of the 1st person (I/ben) for words ending with a consonant. eg:yatak-- yatağım (my bed)

when they end with a vowel, whatever the vowel, just add m.
masa-- masam (my table)

4/ "you added "i" to the words, was it just to explain how words change? Or does the "i" in the end have a meaning? Is it to make words defined?? Like la and le in French?"
yes, exactly!
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Old 02-10-2005, 09:40 PM   #4 (permalink)
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Yes exaclty what??? :D
Pick up one of these 2 :
1* It's just to show the change!
2*It's to make words defined!!

You said yes for an answer that contains 2 options sir
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Old 02-11-2005, 09:08 AM   #5 (permalink)
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oops! sorry about that!...

it's to define the words. (COD)
but while doing so, it does show the change as well, doesn't it? ;-)

elma yedim = j'ai mangé une pomme
elmayı yedim = j'ai mangé la pomme
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Old 02-11-2005, 05:19 PM   #6 (permalink)
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Aha Aha..
Sure it's 2 at 1 :D, but I had doubts about "i" used to define words!

Well, suits me that mixture of languages (French showing up ), and that examples make sense to me, as I remember that I have read earlier in the French part (someone else wrote there), that le COD précède le verbe! :D

Euh..ça roule, non??

(I guess that I have to check around regularly in stead of waiting for notifications)..

I will go to make a whole revision for the 4 lessons, and will probably send my homeworks done honeslty in a while.
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Old 02-14-2005, 06:29 AM   #7 (permalink)
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NOTE:

in the exercise found in lesson 4, there are elements of grammar that I haven't taught you yet, so just bother with the consonant changes. for the rest, we'll see later.
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