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Old 04-05-2008, 02:56 PM   #1 (permalink)
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Hello everybody ! I would like to ask to "English (native) speakers" if my text is comprehensible, if words are fitted to the text and if the grammar is right ... I have some hesitations about certain words... Tanks a lot !

Speaker n°1 => Has France always dismissed/rejected free-market ideas ?

Speaker n°2 => Yes, and yet, it was in France in the 18th century that the word "laissez-faire" / "non-interventionism" was born. And the father of liberalism/free-market economics is/was the French economist Jean-Baptiste Say. But the free-market tradition has always been particularly weak. It is the major difference between France and England. In France, we have a revolution, but (in order) to install an other absolutism. That of Robespierre or that of Napoléon. / (The one of Robespierre or the one of Napoléon).

Speaker n°1 => Did our neighbours better succeed to adapt ? / (Could our neighbours better adjust ?)

Speaker n°2 => Two systems succeed in adapting/adjusting. The Anglo-Saxons model, which is liberal/free-market and is characterized by the search for full employment at any cost, whatever (the) social cost. And the Sandinavian model, which provides a very high social welfare to everybody. Germany and France have a corporatist model, in which you are/ one is protected more or less according to your/his status. Except that in Germany it is not the State but big firms which long/for a long time played the regulator.
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Old 04-05-2008, 09:18 PM   #2 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by juli@ View Post
Hello everybody ! I would like to ask to "English (native) speakers" if my text is comprehensible, if words are fitted to the text and if the grammar is right ... I have some hesitations about certain words... Tanks a lot !

Speaker n°1 => Has France always dismissed/rejected free-market ideas ?
Both are possible, but I would go for "rejected".

Speaker n°2 => Yes, and yet, it was in France in the 18th century that the word "laissez-faire" / "non-interventionism" was born. I think that English-speaking economists in the past generally used the expresssion "laissez-faire", "Non-interventionism is much more recent (possibly coined to make the meaning clear to those whose knowledge of French is non-existent). And the father of liberalism/free-market economics both equally acceptable is/was "was", assuming he is dead the French economist Jean-Baptiste Say. But the free-market tradition has always been particularly weak. It is the major difference between France and England. In France, we have "had" is better a revolution, but (in order) to I would prefer "only to" install an other absolutism. That of Robespierre or that of Napoléon. / (The one of Robespierre or the one of Napoléon). "That of" is better.

Speaker n°1 => Did our neighbours better succeed to adapt ? / (Could our neighbours better adjust ?) I suggest: "Were our neighbours more successful at adapting?"

Speaker n°2 => Two systems succeed in adapting/adjusting. The Anglo-Saxons model the Anglo-Saxon model, which is liberal/free-market and is characterized by the search for full employment at any cost, whatever (the) "the" is necessary social cost. And the Sandinavian model, which provides a very high level of social welfare to everybody. Germany and France have a corporatist model, in which you are/ one is protected more or less according to your/his status. "you" is informal; "one" is better here. Except that in Germany it is not the State but big firms which long/for a long time played the regulator. either: "which have long played" or "which have for a long time played" - the present perfect is necessary if you mean that the situation continues in the present; if you write "played" instead of "have played" it is assumed that this situation is no longer current.
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Old 04-07-2008, 09:37 PM   #3 (permalink)
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Thank you very much MikeL !

What langage you teach?
If you need some help in french (it's my native langage) or in italian (i'm almost fluent) don't hesitate.
Thank you again for you explanations
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Old 04-08-2008, 08:20 AM   #4 (permalink)
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De rien

Au fil des années j'ai enseigné le latin, le grec, l'anglais, l'allemand et le français. Dans le temps je me spécialisais dans le français, mais à l'heure actuelle c'est avant tout le latin qui m'intéresse. Cela dit, j'apprécie toujours l'occasion de pratiquer et d'améliorer mon français!
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Old 04-08-2008, 04:32 PM   #5 (permalink)
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Eh bien dis donc ! 6 langues !
J'ai étudié un peu de latin quand j'étais au collège. J'en ai fait pendant 3 ans, je me souviens juste que c'était assez difficile ! Mais il est vrai que le latin aide dans l'apprentissage du français (et pour bien d'autres langues).
En ce qui me concerne ce serait plutôt mon niveau d'anglais qu'il faudrait que j'améliore... C'est une catastrophe, tant à l'écrit qu'à l'oral, et j'ai un accent très "french" !

Good evening
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Old 04-08-2008, 10:28 PM   #6 (permalink)
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mon niveau d'anglais ... C'est une catastrophe
Faut pas exagérer quand même!!

A en juger par votre texte je dirais que votre niveau d'anglais est assez avancé. Des fautes d'usage plutôt que des fautes de grammaire.
Quant à votre accent, hélas, je ne suis pas en mesure de vous aider...
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Old 04-12-2008, 06:08 PM   #7 (permalink)
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Merci ...
Mais j'ai quand même mis du temps à traduire ce texte, et puis avec l'aide d'un dictionnaire et d'internet bien sûr ! Ca reste de l'écrit ... A l'oral je suis incapable d'avoir une discussion. Pourtant je suis étudiante en 3ème année de fac de langues et je ne devrais pas avoir ces problèmes à l'écrit comme à l'oral. Je vais essayer d'envisager un petit séjour en Angleterre pour combler quelques lacunes ...
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