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Old 10-04-2008, 11:16 AM   #1 (permalink)
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Default Beatus vir qui suffert tentationem without tentationem

Hello!

I bet you get a million questions about this very line, but I can't think of any other examples. But I hope the actual question is not that common - and that you don't mind.

So, I was wondering if it is grammatically correct to remove the word 'tentationem' (or equivalent) from a phrase like "beatus vir qui suffert tentationem"? So that it would then mean something like "blessed is the man who suffers". Or is the word necessary for it to make any sense?

Thanks in advance!
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Old 10-05-2008, 04:47 PM   #2 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Oingo View Post
Hello!

I bet you get a million questions about this very line, but I can't think of any other examples. But I hope the actual question is not that common - and that you don't mind.

So, I was wondering if it is grammatically correct to remove the word 'tentationem' (or equivalent) from a phrase like "beatus vir qui suffert tentationem"? So that it would then mean something like "blessed is the man who suffers". Or is the word necessary for it to make any sense?

Thanks in advance!
The verb stays with the general sense of suffering if we remove the direct object "tentationem" or other one.
Beatus /fortunatus/bene dictus/ (vir) qui suffert /patitur

the construction makes sense
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